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” He answered, “Have you not read that He Who created them from the beginning made them male and female, and said, ‘Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate.” They said to Him, “Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce and to send her away?

” (Matthew 19:3-7, ESV): "Rick, Jesus has just defined marriage as a male (man) to a female (woman), and that's how the men to whom He was speaking understood it.

There is no scriptural evidence that any early Christian who heard Jesus speak in person or who read Matthew 19 understood Jesus to be outlawing polygamy when He spoke of "two becoming one."Events in Matthew 19 occurred around AD 29.

1 Timothy was written around AD 62 so there is at least a 33 year gap between Jesus' statement on divorce and Paul's statements in 1 Timothy 3."A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife" -1 Tim 3:2"Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife" -1 Tim If Jesus intended to teach absolute Complementarity, that the ONLY acceptable marriage is one man with one woman for life, and if His Jewish listeners and early Christians understood that to be His teaching, then why did the Holy Spirit and Paul feel it necessary to point out that bishops and deacons may only have one wife?

You are teaching your opinion - something Jesus did not say - as absolute truth.

Obviously that is a false way of interpreting scripture.2.You are welcome to your views, but as gently as I can say it, they really don't stand in the light of Scripture."Hi Ken- I will address your factually inaccurate statements point by point.1."to come to a conclusion biblically that same sex sexual relations are always outside the marriage covenant."That is your opinion based on your presuppositions about male-female Complementarity in Genesis and ."Jesus has just defined marriage as a male man to a female woman, and that's how the men to whom He was speaking understood it."Your conclusion is not at all what Jesus actually said.The Jewish men to whom Jesus spoke did not define marriage as one man with one woman for life.The orthodox Jewish position since 1450 BC when Moses wrote the Pentateuch has been that Genesis and do not teach absolute Complementarity - one man with one woman for life - as the only marriage paradigm God will bless.Instead the orthodox Jewish position affirmed and blessed polygamy.The fact that there are clearly stated Biblical exceptions to Complementarity proves your absolutist view is wrong.It also leaves open the strong probability that God intended the 5% of humans who are same sex attracted to be same sex partnered.That is "straining at a gnat and swallowing a camel."c.Many heroes of the faith practiced polygamy their entire adult lives yet scripture does not condemn them as living in sin.

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